I am currently writing my dissertation on the classical theory of inflation outlined by Shaikh applied to Britain. My results so far have been very promising with an exceptional relationship between inflation and growth utilisation. However my results have not shown any real correlation between relative new purchasing power and real output growth as Anwar demonstrates for the USA. The results showed a very weak negative correlation. I am unsure if I have made mistakes in my calculations, or if this is perhaps explained by factors such as the financialisation of the British economy? I am curious if other users have attempted to apply the classical theory to a case study country and if you have found similar results? Thanks in advance for any advice that can be offered. Wayne.
top of page
bottom of page
I love the phrase “And the journey begins… it always feels like a moment full of fresh potential. Starting anything new whether writing a book, launching a project, moving to a new place carries both excitement and a little uncertainty. It’s those early steps drafting the first chapter, mapping out what’s ahead, deciding your tone that often set the energy for everything that follows. Sometimes the dawn feels messy, but often it’s where the most creativity lies.
That sense of beginning and craft is something I connect with deeply. I’m passionate about writing and editing, which is why I work with Whitewolf Publishers, offering what we believe are the best book writing services. Helping writers take those first sparks ideas, outlines, rough drafts and shape them into something polished, confident, and ready to reach readers, that’s what makes the journey that much more rewarding.